There Are No "bigger" Infinities

  • 57 results
  • 1
  • 2
Avatar image for gyava
Gyava

349

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

Edited By Gyava

Infinity is not simply a number. It is beyond human comprehension. All the efforts made to actually comprehend infinity have been futile. People say one infinity is greater than other. And they're wrong. Two infinities can only be equal. One cannot be larger than the other. If that's the case then the smaller one has a limit and hence not infinite by definition.

There are there two kinds of infinities. Uncountable and countable. Countable infinity is things that you can start counting but you'll never reach the limit. For example, natural numbers, odd and even numbers.

Uncountable infinity is things you know, can't possibly begin to count. For example the points between the points 0 and 1. There's 0.2, 0.25, 0.627, 0.127, 0.89, 0.99999... and so on. Now repeat the same for all the points on the infinite number line.

Now, you might think that the uncountable set is certainly larger than the countable set since it contains all the elements of the countable set. It's true that it contains the countable set, but that won't make it bigger than the countable infinite set. Simply because both have no true limit to how big the numbers get, they're both equally infinite.

An intuitive way to understand the difference is to consider that the uncountably infinite set is more complete than its countable counterpart. It just has more granularity to it than countably infinite sets. Again, they're both the same in "size".

For further understanding, let's take an example of 2 identical cakes. Assume that each cake represents an infinity. Now we divide the first cake into 100 parts, we can count these 100 parts, thus this is the countably infinite cake. Now, we somehow cut the 2nd cake into infinite, infinitesimally small pieces. This is the uncountably infinite cake since we cannot possibly count the number of pieces. So since both are identical, they're equal in size no matter how many parts we divide it into. While this example isn't entirely accurate, hopefully it's enough to get my point across.

In conclusion, infinite is infinite at the end of the day.

Avatar image for theinsufferable
TheInsufferable

12099

Forum Posts

125

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

I once went for a stay at Hilbert's hotel. Suckers changed my room all the time. Really annoying.

Avatar image for deactivated-60f4940f2eb6f
deactivated-60f4940f2eb6f

3576

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

HAHAHA

looks like a 1st grader to me

Cantor's theorem and diagonal argument nuff said.

Imagine getting debunked by a dead person who lived more than 100 years ago.

Avatar image for darkeryoda
darkeryoda

2508

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

your notions of infinity are completely stupid obviously maths is not your thing

Avatar image for takenstew22
takenstew22

45405

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

#5 takenstew22  Moderator

Of course there isn't. Infinite is infinite.

Avatar image for takenstew22
takenstew22

45405

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

#7 takenstew22  Moderator

@gyava: hm in other words you're saying that dimensional tiering is stupid?

Yes.

Avatar image for darkeryoda
darkeryoda

2508

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

#9  Edited By darkeryoda

HAHAHA

looks like a 1st grader to me

Cantor's theorem and diagonal argument nuff said.

Imagine getting debunked by a dead person who lived more than 100 years ago.

hahaha yes this guy literally said n{R+} = n{N} because they both are infinite

Avatar image for takenstew22
takenstew22

45405

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

#10 takenstew22  Moderator

@takenstew22: makes sense because tbh dimensional tiering is stupid. For instance why should a character who "Transcends fiction" and goes into the real world be quantifiable in vsbattles? Us humans in the real world wouldn't come close to defeating spiderman yet when it comes to dimensional tiering we transcend him so we one shot. Battles in fiction should be debated on who is stronger not who lives in a higher dimension or sees eachother as fiction.

Exactly.

Avatar image for deactivated-60f4940f2eb6f
deactivated-60f4940f2eb6f

3576

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

@alonis3612 said:

HAHAHA

looks like a 1st grader to me

Cantor's theorem and diagonal argument nuff said.

Imagine getting debunked by a dead person who lived more than 100 years ago.

hahaha yes this guy literally said n{R+} = n{N} because they both are infinite

Lmfao he doesn't even realize that Aleph0 and Aleph1, the cardinality of all natural numbers and all real numbers respectively, are just the tip of an iceberg and that there is an infinite amount of larger infinities.

Avatar image for deactivated-60f4940f2eb6f
deactivated-60f4940f2eb6f

3576

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

fat Thor would love that infinite cake example though

Avatar image for darkeryoda
darkeryoda

2508

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

@darkeryoda said:
@alonis3612 said:

HAHAHA

looks like a 1st grader to me

Cantor's theorem and diagonal argument nuff said.

Imagine getting debunked by a dead person who lived more than 100 years ago.

hahaha yes this guy literally said n{R+} = n{N} because they both are infinite

Lmfao he doesn't even realize that Aleph0 and Aleph1, the cardinality of all natural numbers and all real numbers respectively, are just the tip of an iceberg and that there is an infinite amount of larger infinities.

yes it is pretty obvious cardinality of C is infinitely greater than R is infinitely greater than N

Avatar image for rukelnikovftw
RukelnikovFTW

7590

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

@darkeryoda: it's not obvious, during my years in university I saw more than one person be rather stumped when introduced to the concept. However, it is true that it's a rather basic set theory notion learnt during first semester.

Avatar image for Aristeaus
Aristeaus

5179

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

@alonis3612 said:
@darkeryoda said:
@alonis3612 said:

HAHAHA

looks like a 1st grader to me

Cantor's theorem and diagonal argument nuff said.

Imagine getting debunked by a dead person who lived more than 100 years ago.

hahaha yes this guy literally said n{R+} = n{N} because they both are infinite

Lmfao he doesn't even realize that Aleph0 and Aleph1, the cardinality of all natural numbers and all real numbers respectively, are just the tip of an iceberg and that there is an infinite amount of larger infinities.

yes it is pretty obvious cardinality of C is infinitely greater than R is infinitely greater than N

Pretty sure you can blow this guys mind by explaining what the sum of all natural numbers equates to.

Avatar image for rukelnikovftw
RukelnikovFTW

7590

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

@darkeryoda said:
@alonis3612 said:
@darkeryoda said:
@alonis3612 said:

HAHAHA

looks like a 1st grader to me

Cantor's theorem and diagonal argument nuff said.

Imagine getting debunked by a dead person who lived more than 100 years ago.

hahaha yes this guy literally said n{R+} = n{N} because they both are infinite

Lmfao he doesn't even realize that Aleph0 and Aleph1, the cardinality of all natural numbers and all real numbers respectively, are just the tip of an iceberg and that there is an infinite amount of larger infinities.

yes it is pretty obvious cardinality of C is infinitely greater than R is infinitely greater than N

Pretty sure you can blow this guys mind by explaining what the sum of all natural numbers equates to.

If you mean -1/12, its not as simple, that sum diverges, to reach -1/12 you need to make some choice in your definition of how you are gonna manage infinite series.

Avatar image for rukelnikovftw
RukelnikovFTW

7590

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

If you really wanna be blown away, try calculating the dimension of Cantor's Set, that result blew my mind when studying at uni.

Double posting cause I can't edit my comments...

Avatar image for Aristeaus
Aristeaus

5179

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

@Aristeaus said:

Pretty sure you can blow this guys mind by explaining what the sum of all natural numbers equates to.

If you mean -1/12, its not as simple, that sum diverges, to reach -1/12 you need to make some choice in your definition of how you are gonna manage infinite series.

Not quite, but its getting more and more simple every year.

Ramanujan Summation, for this series, is used in mathematics for rocket science, its in text books, and its in theories for QM, such as the Caimir Effect.

Looking more and more like its actually true.

Avatar image for divyansh13
Divyansh13

8344

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

Imagine getting debunked by meme man

¯\_(ツ)_/¯

Avatar image for darkeryoda
darkeryoda

2508

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

@rukelnikovftw said:
@Aristeaus said:

Pretty sure you can blow this guys mind by explaining what the sum of all natural numbers equates to.

If you mean -1/12, its not as simple, that sum diverges, to reach -1/12 you need to make some choice in your definition of how you are gonna manage infinite series.

Not quite, but its getting more and more simple every year.

Ramanujan Summation, for this series, is used in mathematics for rocket science, its in text books, and its in theories for QM, such as the Caimir Effect.

Looking more and more like its actually true.

this sum works on a falcious result in the series

(1-1+1-1+1-1.....) this series can have two values depending whether number of terms are even or odd but if this series is put in a definitive variable x meaning if this series is assumed to have a definite value and that value is x then after a simple math the sum comes out to be 1/2 but the mistake is sum is not definite it is case dependent .

And also as the other guy sigma(i)[i=1 to i= n] is a diverging series that is its some will come out to be infinite as n tends to infinity so however you see it its value coming out to be -1/12 is not correct at all and also how can the sum of positive real converge to a negative value

Avatar image for rukelnikovftw
RukelnikovFTW

7590

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

@rukelnikovftw said:
@Aristeaus said:

Pretty sure you can blow this guys mind by explaining what the sum of all natural numbers equates to.

If you mean -1/12, its not as simple, that sum diverges, to reach -1/12 you need to make some choice in your definition of how you are gonna manage infinite series.

Not quite, but its getting more and more simple every year.

Ramanujan Summation, for this series, is used in mathematics for rocket science, its in text books, and its in theories for QM, such as the Caimir Effect.

Looking more and more like its actually true.

There is no "true" maths work by definition it doesn't try to model anything, physics try to make models for reality and use maths for that.

By Ramanujan Summation I assume you mean analytic continuation, extending the series makes it convergent, the regular series is clealy divergent

Avatar image for darkeryoda
darkeryoda

2508

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

@Aristeaus said:
@rukelnikovftw said:
@Aristeaus said:

Pretty sure you can blow this guys mind by explaining what the sum of all natural numbers equates to.

If you mean -1/12, its not as simple, that sum diverges, to reach -1/12 you need to make some choice in your definition of how you are gonna manage infinite series.

Not quite, but its getting more and more simple every year.

Ramanujan Summation, for this series, is used in mathematics for rocket science, its in text books, and its in theories for QM, such as the Caimir Effect.

Looking more and more like its actually true.

There is no "true" maths work by definition it doesn't try to model anything, physics try to make models for reality and use maths for that.

By Ramanujan Summation I assume you mean analytic continuation, extending the series makes it convergent, the regular series is clealy divergent

what do you mean by extending the series

Avatar image for haxxxz
Haxxxz

3399

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

"Infinities" are usually used in mathematics for representation of higher dimensions

Avatar image for lmaolmaolmao
lmaolmaolmao

2807

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

Lmao

The person that discovered the notion of uncountable infinities: They are bigger than countable infinities

Random Battleboarder a century later: Naa they are the same size trust me bro

Avatar image for gyava
Gyava

349

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

@kemono_dono: why would you ask that? No. I'm not from spacebattles

Avatar image for gyava
Gyava

349

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

@lmaolmaolmao: can you prove how one infinity is bigger than the other? And what is the significance of using one infinity over other in battleboarding apart from maths?

Avatar image for wrathfullegend
WrathfulLegend

81

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

Avatar image for mcflicky
McFlicky

5358

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

Maybe you don't have any bigger infinities, but I do

Avatar image for iknowwhoyouare
iknowwhoyouare

4858

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

Yes there are bigger infinities. Get over it.

Avatar image for divyansh13
Divyansh13

8344

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

^ even Ben Shapiro man is smarter than the OP lmao

Avatar image for rukelnikovftw
RukelnikovFTW

7590

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

@rukelnikovftw said:
@Aristeaus said:
@rukelnikovftw said:
@Aristeaus said:

Pretty sure you can blow this guys mind by explaining what the sum of all natural numbers equates to.

If you mean -1/12, its not as simple, that sum diverges, to reach -1/12 you need to make some choice in your definition of how you are gonna manage infinite series.

Not quite, but its getting more and more simple every year.

Ramanujan Summation, for this series, is used in mathematics for rocket science, its in text books, and its in theories for QM, such as the Caimir Effect.

Looking more and more like its actually true.

There is no "true" maths work by definition it doesn't try to model anything, physics try to make models for reality and use maths for that.

By Ramanujan Summation I assume you mean analytic continuation, extending the series makes it convergent, the regular series is clealy divergent

what do you mean by extending the series

Its not something simple that I'd like to explain here, if you are interested this channel is the most accesible one that I know at explaining maths beyond high school level, and has a good video on it:

Loading Video...

Avatar image for deactivated-60f4d10418f1d
deactivated-60f4d10418f1d

1712

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

Any individual number in the infinity between 0 and 1 will be smaller than 1 and larger than 0

however, if this infinity is combined together it should be equal in value to any other infinity that is considered a bigger infinity. All the infinite numbers between 0 and 1 combined together are equal to all the infinite numbers between 1 and 2 (a bigger infnity) together. Both are simply infinite.

In that sense, I agree that there is no bigger infinity.

Avatar image for iknowwhoyouare
iknowwhoyouare

4858

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

Loading Video...

Avatar image for rukelnikovftw
RukelnikovFTW

7590

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

Any individual number in the infinity between 0 and 1 will be smaller than 1 and larger than 0

however, if this infinity is combined together it should be equal in value to any other infinity that is considered a bigger infinity. All the infinite numbers between 0 and 1 combined together are equal to all the infinite numbers between 1 and 2 (a bigger infnity) together. Both are simply infinite.

In that sense, I agree that there is no bigger infinity.

What? No. to begin with, every open subset of the reals has the same cardinality, in particular the full set is open, and thus any given open subset has the same cardinality as the the continuum line, whether its (1,2) or (0.000456456, 0.000789), there's the same amount of elements in both sets.

However, if you take the set of all possible subsets, usually called the power set, it always has a larger cardinality, meaning there is no given set with the "largest" cardinality.

Avatar image for darkeryoda
darkeryoda

2508

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

@happylife1996 said:

Any individual number in the infinity between 0 and 1 will be smaller than 1 and larger than 0

however, if this infinity is combined together it should be equal in value to any other infinity that is considered a bigger infinity. All the infinite numbers between 0 and 1 combined together are equal to all the infinite numbers between 1 and 2 (a bigger infnity) together. Both are simply infinite.

In that sense, I agree that there is no bigger infinity.

What? No. to begin with, every open subset of the reals has the same cardinality, in particular the full set is open, and thus any given open subset has the same cardinality as the the continuum line, whether its (1,2) or (0.000456456, 0.000789), there's the same amount of elements in both sets.

However, if you take the set of all possible subsets, usually called the power set, it always has a larger cardinality, meaning there is no given set with the "largest" cardinality.

I knew about the zeta function but it is not important for my major so I didn't go deep into that but the problem is the domain of that function since it is a function you give an input and it is ought to give an output but the given output has to be logically true or else it is meaning less putting complex numbers in the domain shows that these results are more of a mathematical findings they have no meaning in real life in my case physics .

and about the cardinality of two sets of real numbers a counter question could be put up:-

lets say f [0,2] -->[0,4] , y = x^2 since this is onto and one one so n[0,2] = n[0,4]

but [0,4] = [0,2] U [2,4] so n[0,4] = n[0,2] + n[2,4]

why this kind of contradictory results arising ?

Avatar image for rukelnikovftw
RukelnikovFTW

7590

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

@rukelnikovftw said:
@happylife1996 said:

Any individual number in the infinity between 0 and 1 will be smaller than 1 and larger than 0

however, if this infinity is combined together it should be equal in value to any other infinity that is considered a bigger infinity. All the infinite numbers between 0 and 1 combined together are equal to all the infinite numbers between 1 and 2 (a bigger infnity) together. Both are simply infinite.

In that sense, I agree that there is no bigger infinity.

What? No. to begin with, every open subset of the reals has the same cardinality, in particular the full set is open, and thus any given open subset has the same cardinality as the the continuum line, whether its (1,2) or (0.000456456, 0.000789), there's the same amount of elements in both sets.

However, if you take the set of all possible subsets, usually called the power set, it always has a larger cardinality, meaning there is no given set with the "largest" cardinality.

I knew about the zeta function but it is not important for my major so I didn't go deep into that but the problem is the domain of that function since it is a function you give an input and it is ought to give an output but the given output has to be logically true or else it is meaning less putting complex numbers in the domain shows that these results are more of a mathematical findings they have no meaning in real life in my case physics .

Well, it was not to explain the Zeta function but how analytic continuation works, while there are infinite ways to expand the functions domain to where it is not defined, only one such expansion would keep the function analytic.

and about the cardinality of two sets of real numbers a counter question could be put up:-

lets say f [0,2] -->[0,4] , y = x^2 since this is onto and one one so n[0,2] = n[0,4]

but [0,4] = [0,2] U [2,4] so n[0,4] = n[0,2] + n[2,4]

why this kind of contradictory results arising ?

I'm not sure what you mean by that, but I guess you are trying to say that there is an isomorfism between those two sets, well, there are for f:R[0,2]->R[0,4], but there isn't one for f:Z[0,2]->Z[0,4], as f:Z[0,2] maps to Z[0,1,4], 2 and 3 are never reached, the function is injective but not surjective, meaning it doesn't reach every element of the destination set, thus, there is no way of "coming back", no inverse function possible that preserves every element as it was. Since an isomorfism is not posible between those sets they can't have the same cardinality.

Avatar image for christianrapper
christianrapper

8540

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

really? Infinite is infinite? What is the point of this?

Avatar image for rukelnikovftw
RukelnikovFTW

7590

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

@dbzfan44 said:
@christianrapper said:

really? Infinite is infinite? What is the point of this?

because people believe in beyond infinite

"Believe"

Avatar image for darkeryoda
darkeryoda

2508

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

@rukelnikovftw:

@rukelnikovftw:about the second one I think you didn't understand what I was saying, simply put I was saying that since you said every open interval on continuum line has the same cardinality

then (0,2) will have the same cardinality as (0,4)

but (0,4) = (0,2] U [2,4) since it is the union of these two sets its cardinality has to be the sum of the cardinality of the two individual subsets since intersection of (0,2] and [2,4) is null.

........................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................

about the first say f and g are two functions defined on a region A and f =g for a subset of A then f = g could be extended to the whole region A since isolated 0 s are not possible (or as far as I know) so this result holds true mathematically but logically some wrong results could be obtained .

1+x+x^2.... has a converging interval in (-1,1) but this interval could be extended by writing it in the form 1/(1-x) ( first expression is the binomial expansion of (1-x) ^-1) to R - {1} so by above definition since (-1,1) is a subset of R - {1} then the domain of the first expression could be expanded now lets put x = 3 first expression will yield 1 + 3 +3^2..... and the second expression will yield -1/2

then we are saying that 1+ 3 + 3^2 ..... = -1/2 which is obviously wrong although mathematically true but logically false same goes with zeta function zeta(z) z on continuum line greater than 1 yields expected results for a converging series but before that on the continuum line it does not like the series in hand zeta(-1) = -1/12 = 1+2+3+4... z(negative even integer) = 0 and z from a point other than the real line on the complex plane has no real meaning .

Avatar image for ovy7
ovy7

6725

Forum Posts

97

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

People like mathematicians and scientists do care, but you won't find them on CV.

Avatar image for lmaolmaolmao
lmaolmaolmao

2807

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

@gyava said:

@lmaolmaolmao: can you prove how one infinity is bigger than the other? And what is the significance of using one infinity over other in battleboarding apart from maths?

Because the set of reals cannot be bijected to the set of naturals.

Replace the elements with unit masses and you have battleboard application

Avatar image for rukelnikovftw
RukelnikovFTW

7590

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

@rukelnikovftw:

@rukelnikovftw:about the second one I think you didn't understand what I was saying, simply put I was saying that since you said every open interval on continuum line has the same cardinality

then (0,2) will have the same cardinality as (0,4)

but (0,4) = (0,2] U [2,4) since it is the union of these two sets its cardinality has to be the sum of the cardinality of the two individual subsets since intersection of (0,2] and [2,4) is null.

(0,2) and (0,4) have the same cardinality, and its easy to prove:

Be f(x) = 2x, then for any given x in (0,4) there exists y in (0,2) so that f(y) = x

So (0,2) has at least as many elements as (0,4), since for any element in (0,4) there's a different one in (0,2), and since you can map the other way round with f(x) = x/2, then (0,4) also has at least as many elements as (0,2) and thus they have the same amount of elements, which is the same amount of elements as the totality of R.

........................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................

about the first say f and g are two functions defined on a region A and f =g for a subset of A then f = g could be extended to the whole region A since isolated 0 s are not possible (or as far as I know) so this result holds true mathematically but logically some wrong results could be obtained .

1+x+x^2.... has a converging interval in (-1,1) but this interval could be extended by writing it in the form 1/(1-x) ( first expression is the binomial expansion of (1-x) ^-1) to R - {1} so by above definition since (-1,1) is a subset of R - {1} then the domain of the first expression could be expanded now lets put x = 3 first expression will yield 1 + 3 +3^2..... and the second expression will yield -1/2

But the thing is, for a function to be analytic it needs to have a derivative everywhere, extending 1+x+x^2 with 1/(1-x) clearly doesn't work because its not derivable in the element {1}.

then we are saying that 1+ 3 + 3^2 ..... = -1/2 which is obviously wrong although mathematically true but logically falsesame goes with zeta function zeta(z) z on continuum line greater than 1 yields expected results for a converging series but before that on the continuum line it does not like the series in hand zeta(-1) = -1/12 = 1+2+3+4... z(negative even integer) = 0 and z from a point other than the real line on the complex plane has no real meaning .

But because you are trying to get results from a function in a domain it is again not defined, the analityc continuation is a function that You

Again, its not "mathematically true", a statement can be assigned a truth value only when premises are given, thus Sqrt(-1) = i, is neither mathematically true nor false, because there are premises that havent been defined, Sqrt:R->R, then its false, Sqrt:C->C then it is true. A function can have different values when evaluated on the same "number" because the conditions given to it make it behave differently, the element {-1} of R is different from the element {-1} of C, they have different properties, same as how 3 divided by four 4 is undefined in N or Z, but it has a value in Q or R.

Avatar image for thenamelessone
thenamelessone

12421

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 4

Maths is just gay as a whole

Avatar image for rukelnikovftw
RukelnikovFTW

7590

Forum Posts

0

Wiki Points

0

Followers

Reviews: 0

User Lists: 0

@darkeryoda said:

but (0,4) = (0,2] U [2,4) since it is the union of these two sets its cardinality has to be the sum of the cardinality of the two individual subsets since intersection of (0,2] and [2,4) is null.

I'll further explain this here since CV is not allowing me to edit comments lately.

The cardinality of [0,2]<R, noted |[0,2]|, is infinity(positive)

|[0,2]| = infinity(p)

|[2,4]| = infinity(p)

|[0,4]| = infinity(p)

Now since infinity is not an element from R when you want to use function with it you cant use the sum defined for R, and since infinity is a limit, we use limits algebra.

infinity(p) + infinity(p) = infinity(p)

So, yes the cardinality of [0,4] is the sum of the cadinalities of its non intersecting subsets, it happens they are all the same. That's the kind of things that happen in infinity, adding not always means having more elements.